1 John Note that verse 7 has a similar syntax to mark the transition to the next section.

Transcript

1 1 John παράκλητος, ὁ = helper, intercessor Τεκνία µου, ταῦτα γράφω ὑµῖν ἵνα µὴ ἁµάρτητε. καὶ ἐάν τις ἁµάρτῃ, παράκλητον ἔχοµεν πρὸς τὸν πατέρα Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν δίκαιον (My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin.) But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous One, My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: My little children, these things I write to you, that you may not sin. But if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the just. My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin. But if anybody does sin, we have one who speaks to the Father in our defense-- Jesus Christ, the Righteous One. My dear children, I am writing this to you so that you will not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate who pleads our case before the Father. He is Jesus Christ, the one who is truly righteous. I write this, dear children, to guide you out of sin. But if anyone does sin, we have a Priest-Friend in the presence of the Father: Jesus Christ, righteous Jesus. What case is Τεκνία? Vocative Note that this marks a shift from the pattern established in 1:6-10, though we can see in the second half of this verse that the pattern (If present general) What tense is ἁµάρτητε and ἁµάρτῃ? Aorist What is the significance of this tense for meaning? (Cf. Bible note.) tn There is some dispute over the significance of the aorist tense of ἁµάρτητε (hamarteòte): (1) F. Stagg ("Orthodoxy and Orthopraxy in the Johannine Epistles," RevExp 67 [1970]:423-32, esp. 428) holds that the aorist is nondescriptive, saying nothing about the nature of the action itself, but only that the action has happened. This is indeed the normal aspectual value of the aorist tense in general, but there is some disagreement over whether with this particular verb there are more specific nuances of meaning. (2) M. Zerwick ("Biblical Greek" 251) and N. Turner (MHT 3:72) agree that the present tense of ἁµαρτάνω (hamartanoò) means "to be in a state of sin" (i.e., a sinner) while the aorist refers to specific acts of sin. Without attempting to sort out this particular dispute, it should be noted that certain verbs do have different nuances of meaning in different tenses, nuances which do not derive solely from the aspectual value of the tense per se, but from a combination of semantic factors which vary from word to word. sn So that you may not sin. It is clear the author is not simply exhorting the readers not to be habitual or repetitive sinners, as if to imply that occasional acts of sin would be acceptable. The purpose of the author here is that the readers not sin at all, just as Jesus told the man he healed in John 5:14 "Don't sin any more." o What difference in meaning would there be if the verbs had been ἁµαρτάνητε and ἁµαρτανῃ? >> keep on sinning? What kind of ἵνα clause here? Purpose What kind of conditional sentence? Present general παράκλητον: Note all uses of this word in NT in Jn. 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7; 1 Jn. 2:1. Who is the paraclete in John? Holy Spirit (But also note John where implication is that Jesus is a paraclete. ) How are you going to have to translate δίκαιον? ADJ: righteous JC (> JC the righteous) or SUBST: JC the righteous one Note that verse 7 has a similar syntax to mark the transition to the next section.

2 2 ἱλασµός, ὁ = expiation, propitiation ἡµέτερος = our καὶ αὐτὸς ἱλασµός ἐστιν περὶ τῶν ἁµαρτιῶν ἡµῶν, οὐ περὶ τῶν ἡµετέρων δὲ µόνον ἀλλὰ καὶ περὶ ὅλου τοῦ κόσµου. and he himself is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for our sins but also for the whole world. and he is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world. He himself is the sacrifice that atones for our sins-- and not only our sins but the sins of all the world. When he served as a sacrifice for our sins, he solved the sin problem for good--not only ours, but the whole world's. ἱλασµός: Note other uses in Lev. 25:9; Num. 5:8; 2 Ma. 3:33; Ps. 129:4; Amos 8:14; Ezek. 44:27; Dat. 9:9; 1 Jn. 2:2; 4:10. (Cf. Bible note.) What is the background of this term? sacrificial system To what in the context does ἡµετέρων refer? sins (Note that the περὶ clauses should be translated in parallel.) 3 Καὶ ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκοµεν ὅτι ἐγνώκαµεν αὐτόν, ἐὰν τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ τηρῶµεν. Now by this we know that we have come to know God: if we keep his commandments. Now by this we may be sure that we know him, if we obey his commandments. And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. And by this we know that we have known him, if we keep his commandments. By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments. We know that we have come to know him if we obey his commands. And we can be sure that we know him if we obey his commandments. Here's how we can be sure that we know God in the right way: Keep his commandments. What are the tenses of the verbs? What is the significance for meaning? o γινώσκοµεν Present o ἐγνώκαµεν Perfect We have known him all along and are knowing now if we continue keeping the commands o τηρῶµεν - Present To whom is αὐτόν referring? (Note translation in and. Cf. Bible note.) probably God What kind of conditional clause is this? Present General

3 4 ψεύστης, ὁ = liar ὁ λέγων ὅτι ἔγνωκα αὐτόν καὶ τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ µὴ τηρῶν, ψεύστης ἐστίν καὶ ἐν τούτῳ ἡ ἀλήθεια οὐκ ἔστιν The one who says "I have come to know God" and yet does not keep his commandments is a liar, and the truth is not in such a person. Whoever says, "I have come to know him," but does not obey his commandments, is a liar, and in such a person the truth does not exist; He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. He who saith that he knoweth him and keepeth not his commandments is a liar: and the truth is not in him. The one who says, "I have come to know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him; The man who says, "I know him," but does not do what he commands is a liar, and the truth is not in him. If someone claims, "I know God," but doesn't obey God's commandments, that person is a liar and is not living in the truth. If someone claims, "I know him well!" but doesn't keep his commandments, he's obviously a liar. His life doesn't match his words. How is the participle ὁ λέγων functioning? Substantive What is its tense? Present > one who is saying Note that ὅτι cannot be serving to introduce indirect discourse here (says that ), because Ἔγνωκα is a first person singular. Use direct discourse instead. How much of the sentence is direct discourse? "I have come to know him" / I know him To whom is αὐτόν referring? (Note translation in and. Cf. Bible note.) probably God Analyze τηρῶν: MascSgNom PresActPtcp o With what does it agree and how is it functioning? (note: καὶ connects it to what other word?) ὁ λέγων καὶ µὴ τηρῶν >> SUBSTANTIVE > the one who is saying and is not keeping Here is one possible way to structure verses 3-6. Note the overlapping vocabulary and the parallels that are created which expand understanding, and also the progression in thought. From these verses, what does it mean to know God? >> v5b: to be ἐν αὐτῷ Καὶ ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκοµεν ὅτι ἐγνώκαµεν αὐτόν, ἐὰν τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ τηρῶµεν. ὁ λέγων ὅτι ἔγνωκα αὐτόν καὶ τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ µὴ τηρῶν, ψεύστης ἐστίν καὶ ἐν τούτῳ ἡ ἀλήθεια οὐκ ἔστιν ὃς δ ἂν τηρῇ αὐτοῦ τὸν λόγον, ἀληθῶς ἐν τούτῳ ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ τετελείωται, ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκοµεν ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ ἐσµεν. ὁ λέγων ἐν αὐτῷ µένειν ὀφείλει καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν καὶ αὐτὸς [οὕτως] περιπατεῖν.

4 5 τελειόω = complete, fulfill, make perfect ὃς δ ἂν τηρῇ αὐτοῦ τὸν λόγον, ἀληθῶς ἐν τούτῳ ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ τετελείωται, ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκοµεν ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ ἐσµεν. But whoever obeys his word, truly in this person the love of God has been perfected. By this we know that we are in him. but whoever obeys his word, truly in this person the love of God has reached perfection. By this we may be sure that we are in him: But whoso keepeth his word, in him verily is the love of God perfected: hereby know we that we are in him. But he that keepeth his word, in him in very deed the charity of God is perfected. And by this we know that we are in him. but whoever keeps His word, in him the love of God has truly been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him: But if anyone obeys his word, God's love is truly made complete in him. This is how we know we are in him: But those who obey God's word truly show how completely they love him. That is how we know we are living in him. But the one who keeps God's word is the person in whom we see God's mature love. This is the only way to be sure we're in God. Analyze τηρῇ: 3SgPresSubjnAct In what kind of construction is it occurring? Indefinite Relative phrase What are some possible ways of understanding the genitive in the phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ? love of/for/by/from God What is the tense of τετελείωται? Perfect The two instances of ἐν τούτῳ in this verse function very differently! Note the punctuation. (Also note the differences in punctuation reflected in the translations.) How does τούτῳ function in each instance? in this person by this (i.e., the perfecting of the love of God)

5 6 ὀφείλω = owe, be obligated, bound ὁ λέγων ἐν αὐτῷ µένειν ὀφείλει καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν καὶ αὐτὸς [οὕτως] περιπατεῖν. The one who says he resides in God ought himself to walk just as Jesus walked. whoever says, "I abide in him," ought to walk just as he walked. He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked. He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also to walk even as he walked. the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner as He walked. Whoever claims to live in him must walk as Jesus did. Those who say they live in God should live their lives as Jesus did. Anyone who claims to be intimate with God ought to live the same kind of life Jesus lived. Analyze µένειν: PresInfAct How is it functioning? (Hint: It is following a verb that indicates speaking / λέγων.) Indirect Discourse Analyze περιπατεῖν: PresActInf How is it functioning? (Hint: ὀφείλει ) Complementary Note that the use of περιπατεῖν here ties this verse back to 1:6f and ahead to 2:11.